1. What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two)
- connect applications together
- save global address space*
- something about NAT
- allow intra-company communication*
2. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
3. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
- The designated port
- The backup port
- The alternate port
- The root port*
4. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
- The interface number
- The port priority*
- The VLAN priority
- The hello time
5. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
- The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN*
- The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
- Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064`
- A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
7. In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
- when a network device fails to forward packets*
- when you require ROMMON access*
- when management applications need concurrent access to the device
- when you require administrator access from multiple locations
- when the control plane fails to respond
8. Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
- Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48*
- Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
- Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
- Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
9. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?
- The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
- A connection occurs.
- Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
- The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.*
10. Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
- preference of the route source
- IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets*
- how the route was learned
- exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
11. Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
- It is defined globally
- It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.*
- It must be configured if static NAT is used
- It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.
12. Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
- shutdown vlan
13. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
14. which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?
15. Which NTP type designates a router without an external reference clock as an authoritative time source?
16. Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)
17. Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse 2)
18. When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?
- in the global config
- Under serial interface
- Under the routing protocol
- Under the multilink interface*
19. What are two statement for SSH?
- use port 22*
- most common remote-access method
- operate at transport
20. If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination, what would the router do?
- Default route*
- No Answer
21. Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
- ACL blocking port 23
- ACL blocking All ports
- ACL blocking port 80*
- ACL blocking port 443
- None of the above
22. Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?
- NTP Peer
- NTP Broadcast
- NTP Master*
- NTP Server
23. Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
- Access-list 110 permit any any
- Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255*
- Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192.168.1.1
- Access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
24. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
- ping ipv6*
25. Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
- CAM table
- Trunk table
- MAC table
- binding database*
26. What is one benefit of PVST+?
- PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
- PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
- PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.*
- PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
27. Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
- When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC
address and the MAC address table.
- Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.*
- Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
- Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
28. Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
- the switch with the highest MAC address
- the switch with the lowest MAC address*
- the switch with the highest IP address
- the switch with the lowest IP address
This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch’s MAC address, with the priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process.
For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11-22-33- 44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.
29. Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
- lt automates network actions between different device types.*
- lt provides robust asset management.
- lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
- lt automates network actions between legacy equipment.
- lt makes network functions programmable.*
Automate network configuration and setup
Deploy network devices faster
Automate device deployment and provisioning across the enterprise.
Provide a programmable network
Enable developers to create new applications that use the network to fuel business growth.
30. Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
- ping address*
- tracert address
- traceroute address
- arp address
31. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
- Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
- Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
- Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
- The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.*
- Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
- The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.*
32. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
- path cost*
- lowest port MAC address
- VTP revision number
- highest port priority number
- port priority number and MAC address
33. Refer to the exhibit.
lf RTRO1 as configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running ElGRP on the network? (Choose three.)
34. Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
- lt can run on a UNlX server.*
- lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.
- lt is more secure than AAA authentication.
- lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
- lt uses a managed database.*
Many IT departments choose to use AAA (Authentication, Authorization and Accounting) protocols RADIUS or TACACS+ to address these issues.
This document describes how to configure a Cisco router for authentication with the TACACS+ that runs on
UNIX. TACACS+ does not offer as many features as the commercially available Cisco Secure ACS for
Windows or Cisco Secure ACS UNIX.
TACACS+ software previously provided by Cisco Systems has been discontinued and is no longer supported
by Cisco Systems.
35. Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
- spanning-tree uplinkfast
- spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst*
- spanning-tree backbonefast
- spanning-tree mode mst
To activate the Rapid-PVST+ protocol: switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
36. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
- More collision domains will be created.
- IP address utilization will be more efficient.
- More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
- An additional broadcast domain will be created.*
37. VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
- The command is rejected.
- The port turns amber.
- The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.*
- The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
38. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
- 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
- VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
- A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.*
- VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
39. Refer to the exhibit
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
- The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
- The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
- The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.*
- VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
- Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.
40. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
- It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
- It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.*
- It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
- It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
41. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
- Bandwidth and Delay
- Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
- Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is:
cost= 10000 0000/bandwith in bps
For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 = 64 to cross a T1 line.
By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface with the ip ospf cost <value> interface subconfiguration mode command.
42. Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
- show cdp neigbors
- show session*
- show users
- show vty logins
43. Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
- The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
- The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
- The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.*
- The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
44. Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
- The 192.168.12.0/24 network is missing from OSPF.*
- The OSPF process ID is incorrect.
- The OSPF area number is incorrect.
- An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.
- A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.
45. Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?
- full mesh*
46. Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)
- tty password
- enable secret password*
- vty password*
- aux password
- console password
- username password
47. Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has just been set?
48. Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
- Routing protocol code
- Network mask*
An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented:
Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class- based, subnet, or supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route.
Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID.
Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop.
Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet.
Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the network ID.
Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes:
Directly Attached Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or contain the IP address of the interface on that network. Remote Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network.
Host Routes. A route to a specific IP address. Host routes allow routing to occur on a per-IP address ba- sis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255.
Default Route. The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.
49. How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
- Configure the switch port as a trunk.
- Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
- Change the operational mode to static access
- Change the administrative mode to access*
50. How is the redundancy represented in ntp master?
51. Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
- Show cdp neighbors detail*
- Show cdp neighbor
- Show cdp interface
- Show cdp traffic
52. Which technology can enable multiple vlan to communicate with one another?
- Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch
- Inter-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch*
- Inter-vlan routing using a layer 2 switch
- Intra-vlan routing using router on a stick
53. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
54. Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?
- Unique Local
- Link local
ip address 172.16.1.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp 999
neighbor 10.1.5.2 remote-as 65001
Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224*
Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31
56. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
- System network architecture
- Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol*
- Open system Interconnect
- Open network architecture
57. Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
- Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
- Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.*
- Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
- Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
- An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
- Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
- Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.*
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly.
Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.
58. Refer to the exhibit.
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
- The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.*
- The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
- Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
- Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
- The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.
59. Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
- Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
- Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
- Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.*
- Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
- Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
- Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.*
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model. DHCP servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such as DNS and default gateways to hosts.
60. Which definition of default route is true?
- A route that is manually configured.
- A route used when a destination route is missing.*
- A route to the exact /32 destination address
- Dynamic route learned from the server.
61. Which value must the device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate with the remote peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?
- The automatically generated user name
- The local host name*
- The user name defined by the administrator
- The host name of the remote device.